> All I want to know is where you're making the connection between John's choice and God's influence.

> You're right, though: God knows John will choose B; therefore, John will choose B. But that isn't saying that John chose B in any way because of God's influence, coercing, "divine intervention," brainwashing, or what have you. John *still had that choice* -- all God had was the knowledge.

The paradox isn't that god causes the action, but that foreknowledge removes any value the "choice" may have. What I mean is, it seems like if someone has perfect knowledge of what I'm going to do, it means that my choice was made solely by factors outside of my control.

I think part of the reason for this paradox is that humans are incapable of having perfect knowledge of any future events: we never have perfect knowledge about the current state of the universe, thus we can only ever talk in probabilities (and quantum mechanics reinforces the notion that this is the best we'll ever have). A being that is *certain* an event will occur almost seems to imply that the event was predestined.

It gets us back to the fundamental point: what is a "free choice," anyway?

Stephen