> According to this article (link below),
> some fans are, or will be, upset by this,
> enough for one person to claim that he "was
> robbed."
>
> Ridiculous. Hogwash.

No kidding. I wanna know how one is "robbed" by not being *given* something. And it's not even that bad -- it's that one isn't being given something *right now*.

But ranting of idiots aside, I'm curious to see how Shelob's transposition could make sense. The ending for the film version of FotR makes so much sense that I think the book should have been written that way. It makes so much sense that I predicted, prior to seeing the movie, that it *would* end by including the first chapter of Two Towers.

But the way I see it, Shelob *is* the "natural" climax of the Frodo/Sam/Gollum portion of The Two Towers. Absolutely everything that happens in the second half of Two Towers builds to Gollum's betrayal of the hobbits to Shelob. I don't understand how a stopping place can be reached without including it. It doesn't make any sense to me.

Not that I am presuming to cast judgment without having seen it. By this time tomorrow, I'll be able to speak more authoritatively. For now, I'm just neutrally puzzled and little intrigued.