> Except that I wasn't addressing a different type
> of death at all. Your original reference to
> death in the first place came from a biblical
> quotation that was referring to spiritual death.

I don't understand how it could. For, as we can see very clearly later on (Gen 4, for example), God has not forsaken them. And, though God does precipitate a great flood, he does elect to save some specimen of man - man who is tainted by the knowledge of good and evil, mind you. But, had man's spiritual death been caused by his eating from the tree, why would God then turn around and save him from destruction?

> because the Bible refers to that type of
> death time and again, explains why it is death, and
> so forth.

Where? I can't seem to find it. The next most appropriate reference I can find is the death of Moses (Deu 34:5-7), and this is very clearly a physical death enacted for lack of faith in the LORD.

> What this has to do with your original point,
> I've since forgotten.

Me too. It's been a good argument, though...

dkd1