Re: The valley of the shadow of death?
Grace, on host 129.49.12.13
Tuesday, February 29, 2000, at 14:40:32
Re: The valley of the shadow of death? posted by Tom Schmidt on Monday, February 28, 2000, at 22:27:12:
> One thing in particular stands out -- it has vowels. > > Biblical Hebrew was originally written without any vowels; that's why you'll sometimes see Yahweh written as YHWH -- though we're pretty sure Yahweh is the correct pronounciation, it could theoretically be almost anything. There were a number of reasons the texts didn't need vowels, among them that they were primarily being transmitted orally; the existence of a text helped more to validate the spoken word than it did as a reference for it.
Hrm. Perhaps I'm misunderstanding what you mean by "reasons they didn't need vowels" but...
Hebrew (Biblical or Modern) does certainly *have* vowels. (I know, you weren't suggesting it didn't.) They simply aren't represented by characters in the alphabet as they are in English. I would argue that the "reason" Hebrew didn't need vowels, is that...well...neither does English, or any other language. Obviously we need to *speak* the vowels, but write each one out? Anyone familiar with Hebrew can easily read aloud (with correct vowels) a Hebrew text without vowle markers. If i were to have written this post without any vowles, my guess is that, with very little difficulty, you would have understood it.
Aftr ll, y cn undrstnd ths sntnc, rght?
Anyway, this was just a little side note to my original question. I simply wanted to make clear that the reason written Hebrew does not represent vowels, is that they're simply not necessary. Hebrew is a very "compact" language in many ways, the lack of alphabet vowles being only one example.
Gr"p.s. there *are* vowels markers in Hebrew, they are just very rarely used, and consist of small dots and dashes marked underneath the consonant to which they belong"ace
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