> If God exists outside of time, though, how can
>there possibly be a "before he makes the
>universe" and "after he makes the universe"? One
>huge point in your proposal is that our
>hypothetical God exists outside of time, which
>is, according to your post, crucial to the idea
>of human free will. However, the other part of
>the argument is that he didn't know what the
>universe would be like before he made it. I know
>this probably sounds like I'm just being a
>nitpicker about phrasing, but I think your
>argument contradicts itself: first "he is not
>subject to" time, then he is?

The key is he is not subject to the "time" of his creation. It does not mean he is not subject to something very much like it that exists in his own "universe" or whatever you want to call the place where god lives. I very clearly made the distinction between the universe this god creates and the one in which he dwells. With respect to the former, he is omniscient and omnipotent. With respect to the latter, he is limited in certain ways.

-- Dave